Question 9.14

Solutions

leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

We have

f'(0)=\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(h)-f(0)}{h}=\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(h)}{h}=0.

Since

\frac{f(h)}{h}=\begin{cases} 0, & \text{if } h \text{ is rational},\\ \frac{h^2}{h}=h, & \text{otherwise}, \end{cases}

the limit is $0$ .

0

Submit a solution

Optional • Markdown

Sign in to share your solution for this question.

Navigate

Q 9.14

Navigate

Q 9.14