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Question 10.31

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

Since ff and gg are differentiable, it follows that

1=f(x)g(x)+f(x)g(x).1=f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x).

But this equality doesn't hold for x=0x=0 because f(0)=g(0)=0f(0)=g(0)=0.

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