We prove this by induction. For the base case n=1, we have
f(1)(x)=−nx−n−1=(−1)1(n−1)!(n+1−1)!x−n−1.For the induction step, suppose the equation holds for k∈N. Then,
f(k+1)(x)=dxd((−1)k(n−1)!(n+k−1)!x−n−k)=(−1)k(n−1)!(n+k−1)!(−n−k)x−n−k−1=(−1)k+1(n−1)!(n+k−1)!(n+k)x−n−(k+1)=(−1)k+1(n−1)!(n+k)!x−n−(k+1).