Skip to main content

Question 10.30

Solutions

TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

We prove this by induction. For the base case n=1n=1, we have

f(1)(x)=nxn1=(1)1(n+11)!(n1)!xn1.f^{(1)}(x)=-nx^{-n-1}=(-1)^1\frac{(n+1-1)!}{(n-1)!}x^{-n-1}.

For the induction step, suppose the equation holds for kNk\in\mathbb{N}. Then,

f(k+1)(x)=ddx((1)k(n+k1)!(n1)!xnk)=(1)k(n+k1)!(n1)!(nk)xnk1=(1)k+1(n+k1)!(n1)!(n+k)xn(k+1)=(1)k+1(n+k)!(n1)!xn(k+1).\begin{align*} f^{(k+1)}(x)&=\frac{d}{dx}\left((-1)^k\frac{(n+k-1)!}{(n-1)!}x^{-n-k}\right) \\ &=(-1)^k\frac{(n+k-1)!}{(n-1)!}(-n-k)x^{-n-k-1} \\ &=(-1)^{k+1}\frac{(n+k-1)!}{(n-1)!}(n+k)x^{-n-(k+1)} \\ &=(-1)^{k+1}\frac{(n+k)!}{(n-1)!}x^{-n-(k+1)}. \end{align*}
0
Submit a solution
Optional • Markdown

Sign in to share your solution for this question.

Sign in

Navigate

Q 10.30

Navigate

Q 10.30