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Question 9.27

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

We prove this with mathematical induction. For the base case, we have

Sn(x)=n!(n0)!xn0=xn.S_n(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-0)!}x^{n-0}=x^n.

Now suppose the equation holds for kk. Then,

Sn(k+1)(x)=dSn(k)(x)dx=ddx(n!(nk)!xnk)=n!(nk)(nk)!xnk1=n!(n(k+1))!xn(k+1)=(k+1)!(nk+1)xn(k+1).\begin{align*} S_n^{(k+1)}(x)&=\frac{dS_n^{(k)}(x)}{dx} \\ &=\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{n!}{(n-k)!}x^{n-k}\right) \\ &=\frac{n!(n-k)}{(n-k)!}x^{n-k-1} \\ &=\frac{n!}{(n-(k+1))!}x^{n-(k+1)} \\ &=(k+1)!{n\choose k+1}x^{n-(k+1)}. \end{align*}
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Q 9.27

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Q 9.27