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Question 8.8

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

a) Let A={f(x):x<a}A=\{f(x):x<a\}. Since AA is nonempty and is bounded above by f(a)f(a), it has a least upper bound; let L=supAL=\sup A.

Pick any ε>0\varepsilon>0. Since LL is the least upper bound of AA and ff is non-decreasing, there exists x0<ax_0<a such that Lf(x0)<εL-f(x_0)<\varepsilon and consequently Lε<f(x0)L-\varepsilon<f(x_0). Let δ=ax0\delta=a-x_0. For all yy, we have

0<ay<ax0=δ    x0<y<a    Lε<f(x0)f(y)L    ε<f(y)L0<ε.\begin{align*} 0<a-y<a-x_0=\delta &\implies x_0<y<a\\ &\implies L-\varepsilon<f(x_0)\le f(y)\le L\\ &\implies -\varepsilon < f(y)-L \le 0 < \varepsilon. \end{align*}

Hence,

limyaf(y)=L.\lim_{y\to a^-} f(y)=L.

The proof that

limya+f(y)\lim_{y\to a^+} f(y)

exists is analogous.

b) Consider

L=limxaf(x)L^- = \lim_{x\to a^-} f(x)

and

L+=limxa+f(x).L^+ = \lim_{x\to a^+} f(x).

Both limits exist from part a), and there are two possibilities that follow. If these limits do not equal each other, then ff does not have a removable discontinuity by definition. On the other hand, if these two limits do equal each other, then they also equal limxaf(x)\lim_{x\to a} f(x). In fact, we have

limxaf(x)=Lf(a)L+=limxaf(x).\lim_{x\to a} f(x)=L^-\le f(a)\le L^+=\lim_{x\to a} f(x).

So limxaf(x)=f(a)\lim_{x\to a} f(x)=f(a) and ff is continuous, in which case it cannot have a removable discontinuity.

c) Consider proving the contrapositive. Suppose ff is not continuous. Then from b), these limits are not equal to each other, otherwise limxaf(x)=f(a)\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=f(a), which contradicts ff not being continuous. Since ff is nondecreasing, it ensues that

sup{f(x):x<a}=limxaf(x)<limxa+f(x)=inf{f(x):x>a}.\sup\{f(x):x<a\}=\lim_{x\to a^-}f(x)<\lim_{x\to a^+}f(x)=\inf\{f(x):x>a\}.

Hence, ff does not take on all values between the limit from below and from above; that is, there is a gap.

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