a) Suppose for contradiction that this were not so; that there exists b such that f(b)=l=0.
Since f is continuous, there exists δ>0 such that
∣f(x)−l∣<∣l∣⟹∣f(x)∣>0for all x∈(b−δ,b+δ). Since this is an open interval, there would be a number a in it. But this contradicts the premise that f(y)=0 for all y in A.
b) Let h(x)=f(x)−g(x). Since h is continuous and h(x)=0 for all numbers x in a dense set A, by a) we have that h(x)=0 for all x. But this means that f(x)−g(x)=0 and therefore f(x)=g(x) for all x.
c) Suppose for contradiction that there exists b such that f(b)<g(b). We have limx→bf(x)=f(b) and limx→bg(x)=g(b). These limits are defined since f and g are continuous. Moreover, there exist δ1,δ2>0 such that
∣f(x)−f(b)∣<2g(b)−f(b)for all x∈(b−δ1,b+δ1) and
∣g(x)−g(b)∣<2g(b)−f(b)for all x∈(b−δ2,b+δ2).
Let δ=min(δ1,δ2). Combining both inequalities, we have that f(x)<g(x) for all x∈(b−δ,b+δ). Since this is an open interval, there exists y∈A with y∈(b−δ,b+δ). But this contradicts the premise that f(x)≥g(x) for all x∈A.
We cannot replace ≥ with >. As a counterexample, consider f(x)=x and g(x)=0 on the dense set A={x:x∈R, x=0}. Obviously, x>0 for all x∈A with x>0, but not for x=0.