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Question 8.14

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

a) We need to prove that

i=1Ii.\bigcap_{i=1}^{\infty} I_i\ne\varnothing.

Notice that I1=[a1,b1]I_1=[a_1,b_1]\ne\varnothing. For the induction step, suppose

i=1nIi\bigcap_{i=1}^{n} I_i\ne\varnothing

for nNn\in\mathbb{N}. By definition, we have

In+1=[an+1,bn+1]I_{n+1}=[a_{n+1},b_{n+1}]

with In+1In=[an,bn]I_{n+1}\subseteq I_n=[a_n,b_n], since

anan+1bn+1bn.a_n\le a_{n+1}\le b_{n+1}\le b_n.

Thus,

i=1n+1Ii.\bigcap_{i=1}^{n+1} I_i\ne\varnothing.

b) Consider In=(0,1n)I_n=\left(0,\frac{1}{n}\right). For contradiction, suppose there exists

xi=1Iix\in\bigcap_{i=1}^{\infty} I_i

with x>0x>0. By Theorem 3, there exists a natural number nn such that 1n<x\frac{1}{n}<x. This means that xInx\notin I_n, which contradicts the premise that xIix\in I_i for all i1i\ge1.

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