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Question 7.18

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

By definition, there exist N1>0N_1>0 and N2<0N_2<0 such that for all xx,

x>N1    f(x)=f(x)<f(0)x>N_1\implies |f(x)|=f(x)<f(0)

and

x<N2    f(x)=f(x)<f(0).x<N_2\implies |f(x)|=f(x)<f(0).

Consider the interval D=[N2,N1]D=[N_2,N_1]. Since ff is continuous, there must exist yDy\in D such that f(y)f(x)f(y)\ge f(x) for all xDx\in D. But over this interval, f(y)f(0)f(y)\ge f(0) since 0D0\in D. Hence, f(x)f(y)f(x)\le f(y) for all xRx\in\mathbb{R}.

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Q 7.18

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Q 7.18