a)
Let
x→0limg(x)=0.By definition,
∀ε>0, ∃δ>0,0<∣x∣<δ⇒∣g(x)∣<ε.Notice that ∣sin(1/x)∣≤1 for all x. Hence,
0<∣x∣<δ⇒∣g(x)∣∣sin(1/x)∣<ε⋅1=ε,and
x→0limg(x)sin(x1)=0.b)
Let
x→0limg(x)=0and ∣h(x)∣≤M for all x. If M=0, then h(x)=0 for all x and
x→0limg(x)h(x)=0is trivially true. Consider M>0. Choose any ε>0. By definition, there exists a δ such that
0<∣x∣<δ⇒∣g(x)∣<Mε.Thus,
∣g(x)∣∣h(x)∣<Mε⋅M=ε.Hence,
x→0limg(x)h(x)=0.