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Question 3.23

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

a) Let x,yDom(g)x,y\in\operatorname{Dom}(g) such that xyx\ne y. Then, if g(x)=g(y)g(x)=g(y), we have

x=f(g(x))=f(g(y))=y,x=f(g(x))=f(g(y))=y,

which contradicts xyx\ne y.

b) Let bb be any number. Let a=g(b)a=g(b). It then follows that

b=f(g(b))=f(a).b=f(g(b))=f(a).

Note that we suppose that bb is in the domain of gg and that g(b)g(b) is in the domain of ff.

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Q 3.23