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Question 3.12

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

a)

  • If ff and gg are both even, then f(x)+g(x)=f(x)+g(x)f(x)+g(x)=f(-x)+g(-x), so their sum is also even.
  • Without loss of generality, let ff be even and gg be odd. Then f(x)+g(x)f(x)g(x)f(x)+g(x)\ne f(-x)-g(-x), so their sum is neither even nor odd.
  • If ff and gg are both odd, then f(x)+g(x)=f(x)g(x)f(x)+g(x)=-f(-x)-g(-x), so their sum is also odd.

b) If both ff and gg are odd, then

f(x)g(x)=(f(x))(g(x)),f(x)g(x)=(-f(x))(-g(x)),

so fgfg is even. Likewise, if both ff and gg are even, then

f(x)g(x)=f(x)g(x),f(x)g(x)=f(-x)g(-x),

so fgfg is also even. Lastly, without loss of generality, if ff is even and gg is odd, then

f(x)g(x)=f(x)(g(x))=f(x)g(x).f(x)g(x)=f(-x)(-g(-x))=-f(x)g(x).

So fgfg is neither even nor odd, and this result applies more generally if one of ff and gg is even and the other function is odd.

c) If gg is even, then

f(g(x))=f(g(x)).f(g(x))=f(g(-x)).

Thus, fgf\circ g is even whether ff is even or odd. If gg is odd and ff is even, then

f(g(x))=f(g(x)),f(g(x))=f(-g(-x)),

so the oddness of gg has no bearing on fgf\circ g, and their composition is even.

d) Let ff be any even function. Define the function gg as g(x)=f(x)g(x)=f(x) for all x0x\ge 0. Since ff is even, we have that for x0x\ge 0,

f(x)=f(x)=g(x).f(-x)=f(x)=g(x).

This means that the function gg we defined respects the equality f(x)=g(x)f(x)=g(|x|) for any xRx\in\mathbb{R}. Moreover, the equality holds if we were to have values defined over (,0)(-\infty,0). Hence, we can construct infinitely many functions hh that satisfy f(x)=h(x)f(x)=h(|x|) by defining hh as

h={f(x),x0,n,x<0,h= \begin{cases} f(x), & x\ge 0,\\ n, & x<0, \end{cases}

with infinitely many nNn\in\mathbb{N}.

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