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Question 2.11

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

(a) Well that's false, regardless of the given rational aa and irrational bb. We shall prove that by contradiction. Since aa is rational, we know that a-a also is rational. Now, let us assume that the sum a+ba + b also is rational. Thus, since the rational numbers are closed under addition and subtraction,

(a+b)aQ    bQ\begin{aligned} (a + b) - a \in \mathbb{Q} \implies b \in \mathbb{Q} \end{aligned}

Which clearly contradicts our premise that bb is irrational.

(b) This amounts to determining whether the irrational numbers are closed under addition and employs a similar strategy to the previous proof. We proceed with a proof by contradiction by first assuming that a,bQ    a+bQa,b \in \mathbb{Q}^{*} \implies a + b \in \mathbb{Q}.

With that assumption, we can then also assume that a+2bQa + 2b \in \mathbb{Q} since 2bQ2b \in \mathbb{Q}^{*}. As a result, if we subtract the former sum from the latter, we obtain the following contradiction:

(a+2b)(a+b)=bQ\begin{aligned} (a + 2b) - (a + b) = b \in \mathbb{Q}^{*} \end{aligned}

Again, that is because the rational numbers are closed under addition/subtraction.

(c) Let aQbQa \in \mathbb{Q}\wedge b \in \mathbb{Q}^{*} and suppose abQab \in \mathbb{Q}^{*}. Thus, if a0a \neq 0,

(ab)×a1QbQ\begin{aligned} (ab) \times a^{-1} \in \mathbb{Q}\\ b \in \mathbb{Q} \end{aligned}

We therefore have a contradiction in the set to which bb belongs. Now, if a=0a = 0, then ab=0ab = 0. In this case, QabQ\mathbb{Q}\ni ab \notin \mathbb{Q}^{*}.

(d)   a:a2Qa4Q\exists \; a: a^{2} \in \mathbb{Q}^{*}\wedge a^{4} \in \mathbb{Q}

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