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Question 11.50

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

2 months ago

Let

h(x)=g(b)f(x)+f(a)g(x)f(x)g(x).h(x)=g(b)f(x)+f(a)g(x)-f(x)g(x).

Notice that hh is continuous on [a,b][a,b] and differentiable on (a,b)(a,b). Moreover,

h(a)=h(b)=g(b)f(a).h(a)=h(b)=g(b)f(a).

Hence, we can apply Rolle's theorem which gives

h(x)=g(b)f(x)+f(a)g(x)f(x)g(x)f(x)g(x)=0h'(x)=g(b)f'(x)+f(a)g'(x)-f'(x)g(x)-f(x)g'(x)=0

for some x(a,b)x\in(a,b). Since g(y)0g'(y)\ne 0 for all y(a,b)y\in(a,b), we can rearrange the terms above and obtain

f(x)(g(b)g(x))=g(x)(f(x)f(a))    f(x)g(x)(g(b)g(x))=f(x)f(a).\begin{align*} f'(x)\big(g(b)-g(x)\big) &= g'(x)\big(f(x)-f(a)\big) \implies \frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)}\big(g(b)-g(x)\big)=f(x)-f(a). \end{align*}

We now hope to divide both sides by g(b)g(x)g(b)-g(x) but this requires that g(b)g(x)g(b)\ne g(x) for all x(a,b)x\in(a,b). Suppose for contradiction that g(y)=g(b)g(y)=g(b) for some y(a,b)y\in(a,b). Then, by Rolle's theorem, g(z)=0g'(z)=0 for some z(y,b)z\in(y,b) which is contradictory.

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Q 11.50

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Q 11.50