Skip to main content

Question 11.40

Solutions

TZ
leumasicOfficial

2 months ago

Since ff is continuous on [0,1][0,1] and f(x)f(x) is in [0,1][0,1] for each xx, we know that f(x0)=x0f(x_0)=x_0 for some x0[0,1]x_0\in[0,1] by exercise 7-11. In this exercise, we also have that f(x)1f'(x)\ne 1 for all x[0,1]x\in[0,1].

We now prove that f(y)=yf(y)=y for exactly one y[0,1]y\in[0,1]. For contradiction, suppose there exists x1[0,1]x_1\in[0,1] in addition to x0x_0 such that f(x1)=x1f(x_1)=x_1, just as f(x0)=x0f(x_0)=x_0. Without loss of generality, assume x0<x1x_0<x_1. We thus have by the mean value theorem that

f(c)=f(x1)f(x0)x1x0=x1x0x1x0=1f'(c)=\frac{f(x_1)-f(x_0)}{x_1-x_0}=\frac{x_1-x_0}{x_1-x_0}=1

for some c(x0,x1)c\in(x_0,x_1). But this contradicts the supposition that f(x)1f'(x)\ne 1 for all x[0,1]x\in[0,1].

0
Submit a solution
Optional • Markdown

Sign in to share your solution for this question.

Sign in

Navigate

Q 11.40

Navigate

Q 11.40