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Question 11.35

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

2 months ago

We have that g(a)0g(a)\ne 0. Since gg is differentiable it also is continuous and therefore there exists an interval (aδ,a+δ)(a-\delta,a+\delta) where g(a)0g(a)\ne 0 for some δ>0\delta>0. It follows that fg\frac{f}{g} is differentiable over this interval and the derivative is

(fg)=fgfgg2=0.\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)'=\frac{f'g-fg'}{g^2}=0.

Consider any point xx such that a<x<a+δa<x<a+\delta. By the mean value theorem we have

(fg)(x)(fg)(a)xa=0    (fg)(x)(fg)(a)=0    (fg)(x)=0    f(x)=0.\frac{\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)-\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(a)}{x-a}=0 \implies \left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)-\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(a)=0 \implies \left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)=0 \implies f(x)=0.

Thus, f(x)=0f(x)=0 for x(a,a+δ)x\in(a,a+\delta). Applying the same mean value theorem argument above but for xx such that aδ<x<aa-\delta<x<a, we get f(x)=0f(x)=0 for x(aδ,a]x\in(a-\delta,a]. Hence, f(x)=0f(x)=0 for all x(aδ,a+δ)x\in(a-\delta,a+\delta).

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Q 11.35

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Q 11.35