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Question 10.25

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

We have

d(x)=f(x)f(a),d'(x)=f'(x)-f'(a),

so d(a)=0d'(a)=0.

Such that n1kn-1-k is even. Hence, f(x)=0f(x)=0 for precisely kk numbers xx. Moreover, by Problem 10-22 a), there exists a polynomial function gg of degree nn such that g=fg'=f. In this case, it follows that nkn-k is odd since n1kn-1-k is even.

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Q 10.25

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Q 10.25