Question 10.25
3 months ago
We have
so d′(a)=0d'(a)=0d′(a)=0.
Such that n−1−kn-1-kn−1−k is even. Hence, f(x)=0f(x)=0f(x)=0 for precisely kkk numbers xxx. Moreover, by Problem 10-22 a), there exists a polynomial function ggg of degree nnn such that g′=fg'=fg′=f. In this case, it follows that n−kn-kn−k is odd since n−1−kn-1-kn−1−k is even.
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Q 10.25