a) We just need to think of differentiation in reverse. One function g that satisfies g′=f is
g(x)=n+1anxn+1+nan−1xn+⋯+a0x.Since the derivative of any constant is 0, any function h(x)=g(x)+c for any c also satisfies h′=f.
b) We have
g(x)=−xb2−3x2b3−⋯−mxm−1bm.c) We have that
f′(x)=nanxn−1+(n−1)an−1xn−2+⋯+a1−x2b1−⋯−xm+1mbm.Hence, there are no coefficients whereby f′(x)=x1.