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Question 10.22

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

3 months ago

a) We just need to think of differentiation in reverse. One function gg that satisfies g=fg'=f is

g(x)=ann+1xn+1+an1nxn++a0x.g(x)=\frac{a_n}{n+1}x^{n+1}+\frac{a_{n-1}}{n}x^n+\cdots+a_0x.

Since the derivative of any constant is 00, any function h(x)=g(x)+ch(x)=g(x)+c for any cc also satisfies h=fh'=f.

b) We have

g(x)=b2xb33x2bmmxm1.g(x)=-\frac{b_2}{x}-\frac{b_3}{3x^2}-\cdots-\frac{b_m}{mx^{m-1}}.

c) We have that

f(x)=nanxn1+(n1)an1xn2++a1b1x2mbmxm+1.f'(x)=na_nx^{n-1}+(n-1)a_{n-1}x^{n-2}+\cdots+a_1-\frac{b_1}{x^2}-\cdots-\frac{mb_m}{x^{m+1}}.

Hence, there are no coefficients whereby f(x)=1xf'(x)=\frac{1}{x}.

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Q 10.22

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Q 10.22